Hi!
As the title of my blog suggests, the posts here are questions I have as I attempt to learn quantum mechanics. Feel free to try to enlighten me by leaving comments, or contacting me directly. Thanks in advance for your help!
So why does the probability calculated using the "hidden variables" approach depend on the angle?
This post addresses a question I have about a graph presented in a YouTube video entitled "The EPR Paradox & Bell's inequality explained simply" by Arvin Ash. In short, Arvin tries to show how the "hidden variables" explanation for entanglement violates Bell's inequality. The video may be found here: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=f72whGQ31Wg . At 15:09, there is a graph comparing the probability of getting the same spin for Z and Q as a function of the angle between Z and Q. The red lines correspond to the "hidden variables" approach, and the blue curve corresponds to the quantum mechanics approach. Earlier in the video, Arvin enumerates eight possible combinations of X, Z and Q for the hidden variables approach, and shows that getting Z+ and Q+ occurs in two of the eight possibilities. How then, is this probability suddenly a function of the angle between Z and Q in the hidden variables case? I asked the YouTube AI these questions a...
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